on a draw because of the fact you can’t rebuy. If this overlay is very high tho, there comes a point in (almost) every tournament situation where you can no longer turn it down. In that hand Doyle bet 17,000 into Stu Ungar. Stu called hoping to hit a gutshot, and did, and busted Doyle. Later, Doyle admitted he should have bet more.

I don’t like your call with the gutshot. I don’t think you had the implied odds to even come close to making that call worthwhile. He was betting nearly 20% of your remaining stack, and you called on an 11-1 shot.

The more general question tho… How much implied odds do you need to call in a tournament with a draw?

I think you need more implied odds to call a tournament bet than you would need in a ring game to call in the exact same situation. For instance…

Say you have KQs and the flop is AT4r with one diamond. There’s $20 in the pot and your opponent, whom you are sure needs to have an ace or better to bet, bets $5. Clearly you don’t have the pot odds to call, but do you have the implied odds? With 20 in the pot, you need to get another $35 off him to break even, more than that to make a profit. Say his stack is $50. Well, in a ring game, if you think you can break him, you might call. But say your stack is $50 and this is a tournament, and the BB is $5, and will soon go up to $10. Here, you’re risking 10% of your stack on a longshot. I personally don’t do this in tournaments. Draws basically are not as worthwhile in tournaments because of the inability to rebuy chips if you lose. Obviously, the more of a longshot, the less you should be inclined to try, even with implied odds. The exception would be of course if the blinds / bet were very small compared to your stack.

To simplify more, say you were getting 12:1 on an 11:1 shot. In a ring game, you take it, simple as that. In a tournament, you might want to give up a small overlay.

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